Use rules of inference and laws of logical equivalence to prove $$(\neg p\land q)\land(r\to p)\land(\neg r\to s)\land(s\to t)\implies t$$
Writing this in a truth table confirmed to me that it was not a tautology nor a contradiction, but I don't know the ideal way to use these rules to break it down. Any help would be great.
This is realized as soon as one of the clause is false. For instance if $q=0$ then whole expression is false independently of the values taken by the other variables.
False LHS can imply any RHS, so this is ok.
Then all clauses should be true
$\begin{array}{ll} c_1 \implies p=0,q=1 &\text{to have }1\land 1=1\\ c_2 \implies r=0\ & \text{only false can imply false}\\ c_3 \implies s=1 & \text{true implies true}\\ c_4 \implies t=1 & \text{true implies true}\\ \end{array}$
True LHS can only imply true RHS, since $t=1$ is forced this is ok.