non-constant coefficient Differential Equation with Dirac delta (unsure how to properly write the solution)

80 Views Asked by At

$\zeta$ is a constant, $g(M) < M$, $g^{-1}(\zeta) > 0$, and the equation is: $$ a'(M) - a(M)\frac{g'(M)}{M-g(M)} + \frac{\delta_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}(M)}{M-g(M)} = 0 $$

Things can be left in terms of $g(M)$ and $g'(M)$ and the goal is to calculate $a(M)$ (by integrating from $0$ to $M$)

The reason for solving this equation is to get a solution for $a(M)$ in the following equation $$ \partial_M{\Large[}a(M)(x-g(M)) + 1_{M \geq g^{-1}(\zeta)}(M){\Large]}_{x=M} = 0. $$ So I expanded the derivative and used the identity
$$ \partial_M1_{M \geq g^{-1}(\zeta)}(M) = \delta_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}(M) $$ in order to get to the above differential equation.


The correct answer is:

$$a(M) = a(0)*e^{\int_0^M\frac{g'(y)}{y-g(y)}dy} -\frac{e^{\int_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}}{g^{-1}(\zeta)-\zeta}*1_{M \geq g^{-1}(\zeta)}$$


This is my work:

The homogeneous equation $$ a'(M) - a(M)\frac{g'(M)}{M-g(M)} = 0 $$ has solution: $$a(0)*e^{\int_0^M\frac{g'(y)}{y-g(y)}dy}$$ which I can easily calculate using the integrating factor.

Now for when I am solving it with the dirac delta included, I am trying to solve it as an equation in the form: $y' + p(t)y = q(t)$ (so it is a linear first order ODE as described here)

The form of the general solution is then: $$a(M) = a(0)*e^{\int_0^M\frac{g'(y)}{y-g(y)}dy} -e^{\int_0^M\frac{g'(y)}{y-g(y)}dy} *\int_0^M\delta_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}(y) * e^{-\int_0^y\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}*\frac{1}{y-g(y)}dy$$ which I simplified by just bringing inside the exponential: $$a(M) = a(0)*e^{\int_0^M\frac{g'(y)}{y-g(y)}dy} -\int_0^M\delta_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}(y) * e^{\int_y^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}*\frac{1}{y-g(y)}dy$$

So now, using the formal relation $$ \int_X f(y)\delta_x(y)\mathrm{d}y= f(x) $$ from the Wikipedia entry on Dirac measure, I calculated the integral to be $$-\int_0^M\delta_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}(y) * e^{\int_y^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}*\frac{1}{y-g(y)}dy = -e^{\int_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}*\frac{1}{g^{-1}(\zeta)-\zeta}$$

So my final answer is:

$$a(M) = a(0)*e^{\int_0^M\frac{g'(y)}{y-g(y)}dy} -\frac{e^{\int_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}}{g^{-1}(\zeta)-\zeta}$$

which is nearly the actual answer, but it is missing the indicator function in the second term.

Anyone can point out where I went wrong? I think it might have to do with the initial equation that is being solved as well, so maybe that is why the indicator function reappears.

Thanks!

1

There are 1 best solutions below

5
On BEST ANSWER

Thanks to @quarague for helping get to this answer!

So the expressions: $$-\int_0^M\delta_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}(y) * \frac{e^{\int_y^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}}{y-g(y)}dy = \frac{-e^{\int_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}}{g^{-1}(\zeta)-\zeta} = $$

are only valid if the dirac measure's fixed element ($g^{-1}(\zeta)$ in our case) is in the set the integral is done over, so in this case, $[0,M]$, and otherwise the integral will be $0$. So we need for $g^{-1}(\zeta) \in [0,M]$

So basically the expression can be written:

$$-\int_0^M\delta_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}(y) * \frac{e^{\int_y^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}}{y-g(y)}dy = 1_{0 \leq g^{-1}(\zeta) \leq M}(M)\frac{-e^{\int_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}}{g^{-1}(\zeta)-\zeta} $$ and since we use the condition $g^{-1}(\zeta) > 0$, we can rewrite $1_{0 \leq g^{-1}(\zeta) \leq M}(M)$ as $1_{g^{-1}(\zeta) \leq M}(M)$, and therefore we have as final answer:

$$a(M) = a(0)*e^{\int_0^M\frac{g'(y)}{y-g(y)}dy} -\frac{e^{\int_{g^{-1}(\zeta)}^M\frac{g'(r)}{r-g(r)}dr}}{g^{-1}(\zeta)-\zeta}*1_{M \geq g^{-1}(\zeta)}(M)$$