Let $$\mu:\Bbb H\times \Bbb H\to \Bbb H, \qquad (x,y)\mapsto x\cdot_{\Bbb H} y$$ denote the product of two quaternions. With the standard identification $$\Bbb H\cong\Bbb C^2\cong \Bbb R^4, \qquad x_0+ix_1+jx_3+kx_4\equiv (x_0+ix_1, x_3+ix_4)\equiv(x_0,x_1,x_3,x_4)$$ one sees: $$\mu: \Bbb C^4 \to \Bbb C^2,\qquad (z_1,z_2,w_1,w_2)\mapsto (z_1\cdot w_1-z_2\overline{w_2}, z_1w_2+z_2\overline{w_1})$$ and $\mu$ is not holomorphic. My question is whether or one can choose a different complex structure on the domain so that this map does become holomorphic. More precisely:
Does there exist a real orthogonal transformation $A\in O(8)$ so that $$(\mu\circ A): \Bbb C^2\times \Bbb C^2\cong\Bbb R^4\times\Bbb R^4\to \Bbb R^4 \cong \Bbb C^2,\qquad x\mapsto \mu(Ax)$$ is holomorphic?

Its not true, here is a sketch of how it can be shown:
Suppose we have $I_D\in M_{8\times 8}(\Bbb R)$ and $I_T\in M_{4\times 4}(\Bbb R)$ two imaginary units on $\Bbb R^8$ and $\Bbb R^4$. Crucially, from the way the question is set up, these do not depend on the point (because the identification $\Bbb R^8\cong \Bbb C^4$ is linear, same with $\Bbb R^4 \cong \Bbb C^2$). Then if $\mu$ were holomorphic one must have for all $x\in \Bbb R^8$:
$$D_x\mu \circ I_D = I_T\circ D_x \mu \tag{1}$$
If we let $H_x\subseteq \Bbb R^8$ denote the horizontal subspace of $D_x\mu$ (ie $\ker(D_x\mu)^\perp$), then one verifies that this is $4$-dimensional everywhere except at $x=0$. We let $i_x:H_x\to \Bbb R^8$ denote the inclusion and $\pi_x: i_x\circ i_x^T$ the orthogonal projection on $\Bbb R^8$ to this subspace. It is elementary to verify that:
$$\pi_x = (D_x\mu)^T \circ (D_x\mu \circ(D_x\mu)^T)^{-1}\circ D_x\mu\tag{2}$$ and then (1) implies: $$I_D \circ \pi_x = (D_x\mu)^T \circ (D_x\mu\circ (D_x\mu)^T)^{-1}\circ I_T \circ D_x\mu\tag{3}.$$ Now if $p= (1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0)$, $q=(0,0,0,0,1,0,0,0)$ then a software evaluates for me: $$\pi_p=\begin{pmatrix}\Bbb 1_{4\times 4} &0_{4\times 4} \\ 0_{4\times 4}&0_{4\times 4}\end{pmatrix},\qquad \pi_q=\begin{pmatrix}0_{4\times 4} &0_{4\times 4} \\ 0_{4\times 4}&\Bbb 1_{4\times 4}\end{pmatrix}.$$ And then from (3): $$I_D = I_D\circ \pi_q+I_D\circ \pi_p\\ =(D_p\mu)^T \circ (D_p\mu\circ (D_p\mu)^T)^{-1}\circ I_T \circ D_p\mu+(D_q\mu)^T \circ (D_q\mu\circ (D_q\mu)^T)^{-1}\circ I_T \circ D_q\mu\\ =\begin{pmatrix}\ I_T &0_{4\times 4} \\ 0_{4\times 4}&I_T\end{pmatrix}$$ Where this calculation is again done by a software.
Now that the form of $I_D$ (depending in $I_T$) is known it is easy to get a contradiction by plugging in $z=(0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0)$ into (1) and noting that the left-hand side and right-hand side differ.
As a final remark: