I've been told that the non-unital ring $\{\frac{2n}{2m+1}: n, m \in \mathbb{Z}\} \subseteq \mathbb{Q} $ has no maximal ideals. I've been trying to crack this one to no avail.
This example was presented (with no proof) to stress the importance of the requirement of having an identity element in order to ensure the existence of maximal ideals.
Thanks in advance.
EDIT: This assertion seems to be false.
This is false. Let $R=\{\frac{2n}{2m+1}:n,m\in\mathbb{Z}\}$ and let $I=2R=\{\frac{4n}{2m+1}:n,m\in\mathbb{Z}\}$, which is a proper ideal. Note that $rs\in I$ for all $r,s\in R$, so the quotient $R/I$ is a rng in which all products are $0$. This means ideals in $R/I$ are the same as additive subgroups. As an abelian group, $R/I$ is a vector space over $\mathbb{Z}/(2)$ since every element is annihilated by $2$. So, we can pick a codimension $1$ vector subspace $J\subset R/I$ and $J$ will be a maximal proper subgroup and hence a maximal ideal. The inverse image of $J$ in $R$ is then a maximal ideal in $R$.