Let $X\subset \mathbb P^2$ be the curve (over $\mathbb C$) defined by $x-y^n=0$. We can view it as points of the form $$\{(x,\sqrt[n] x)\}$$ in $\mathbb A^2$ and then take closure in $\mathbb P^2$. Here $x$ takes all the $n$ roots. So it is natrual to consider points of the form $$\{([p:q],[1:\sqrt[n] \frac{p}{q}:(\sqrt[n] \frac{p}{q})^2:\ldots:(\sqrt[n] \frac{p}{q})^{n-1}])\}$$ in $\mathbb P^1\times \mathbb P^{n-1}$ defined by \begin{cases} (x_1/x_0)^n=p/q\\ x_1/x_0=x_2/x_1\\ x_2/x_1=x_3/x_2\\ \ldots\\ x_{n-1}/x_{n-2}=x_{n-1}/x_{n-2}\\ \end{cases} We denote it by $X'$.
I want to show that:
$X'$ is the normalization of $X$
It looks reasonable, and I have checked it is true for $n$ small. But is there some smart way to prove this for any $n$? And is there any intuitive way to explain this?
More generally, is it always true that we can normalize an arbitrary plane curve in this way?
Thanks in advance.
Unfortunately the answer is no, this will not yield the normalization of $X$; quite simply because $X'$ is not a curve unless $n=2$.
Let me illustrate for $n=5$. The homogenized equations are the following: \begin{align*} z x_2 &= x_1^2 \\ z^2 x_3 &= x_1^3 \\ z^3 x_4 &= x_1^4 \\ z^4 x_0 &= x_1^5 \end{align*} Now at any point with $z=x_1=0$, i.e. $p=[0:x_0:0:x_2:x_3:x_4]$, we have $p\in X'$. This means $\Bbb P^3\subseteq X'$ and consequently, $\dim(X')\ge 3$. It should be quite easy to see that $\dim(X')\ge n-1$ holds in the general case.
That said, I thought it beneficial to remark that there is a deterministic way to normalize a curve through successive blow-up operations and it might be a good idea to go through this process for the curve $z^{n-1}x-y^n$ and see what happens. This procedure is well-understood theoretically and algorithmically.
You should familiarize yourself with the theory first, but if you are interested in concrete computations, I recommend to play around with singular's resolve function in their online interface;
https://www.singular.uni-kl.de:8003/
For example, the code
will suggest that the curve can be desingularized by $n-2$ blowups. It might be a good exercise to try and prove that this is indeed the case.