I saw an old post. It gives the following result.
Assume that $H$ is a subgroup of a finite group $G$, and that $P$ is a Sylow $p$-group of $H$. If $N_G(P) \subset H$ then $P$ is a Sylow p-subgroup of $G$.
My first question: I wonder if there should be “$m=k$” at the end of the proof. “$\alpha=s$” is the desired result and in fact we can only get $\alpha=s$ from $p^{\alpha-s}m\equiv k({\rm mod}~p)$. “$m=k$” gives $$|N_G(P)|=p^sk=p^{\alpha}m=|G|$$ and hence $N_G(P)=G$, which we don’t necessarily have.
My second question: If what I said in the first question is correct, then we still have $m\equiv k ({\rm mod}~p)$. If that is so, then the order of the normalizer of a Sylow $p$-subgroups is rather restricted. Is that right? Is there anything that I should note?
Any help is appreciated. Thank you!
Your first question: Yes, $m\equiv k\bmod p$, not $m=k$.
Second question: The order of a Sylow$p$-normalizer can be anything you want, in for example the group $P\times G$. If you mean inside a given group then yes, it has to be such that the index is congruent to $1$ modulo $p$. I'm not aware of any other serious restrictions, except things like Burnside's normal $p$-complement theorem. This has the corollary that if the Sylow $p$-subgroup is abelian and $N_G(P)=P$ then there is a normal $p'$-subgroup $K$ such that $G=KP$.