If a group is finite, then it's easy to see by group action that $n_p\equiv-1\pmod p$.
However, is the result true for an infinite group? My conjecture is that if $n_p$ is non-zero and finite, then $n_p\equiv-1\pmod p$ of infinite groups. I proved the result for $n_2$, but don't know whether it is true for all primes.
Suppose $G$ is a group with finitely many elements of order $p$. We may assume that $G$ is generated by its elements of order $p$ (otherwise, just look at the subgroup they generate). Since every conjugate of an element of order $p$ has order $p$, each element of order $p$ must have centralizer of finite index. So, the intersection $Z$ of the centralizers of elements of order $p$ is finite index. Since $G$ is generated by its elements of order $p$, $Z$ is actually the center of $G$.
So, the center of $G$ has finite index. This implies that the commutator subgroup $[G,G]$ is finite (see this question for instance). But $G/[G,G]$ is an abelian group generated by finitely many elements of finite order, so it is finite as well. Thus $G$ is finite, and so the result for finite groups applies.