I'm trying to understand the final step in a proof of uniqueness of left Haar measures on locally-compact groups as presented in Knapp's "Advanced Real Analysis" (pg. 224-225) or this note by Pedersen (pg. 5). Both proofs proceed roughly as follows
Let $\mu,\lambda$ be left Haar measures on the $\sigma$-compact LCG $G$, wlog assume $\mu\leq\lambda$ (otherwise replace $\lambda$ by $\mu+\lambda$). By Radon-Nikodym there exists $h:G\to[0,\infty)$ with $d\mu=hd\lambda$. For $g$ arbitrary fixed and $f\geq0$ arbitrary by translation-invariance (here $L_gf(x)=f(g^{-1}x)$) $$\int f\cdot L_gh\,d\lambda=\int L_{g^{-1}}f\cdot h\,d\lambda=\int L_{g^{-1}}f\,d\mu=\int f\,d\mu=\int f\cdot h\,d\lambda$$ $\implies L_gh\,d\lambda=h\,d\lambda$ as measures $\implies$ for any $g$ holds $L_gh=h$ $\lambda$-a.e.. It follows that the function $g\mapsto\int|L_gh-h|\,d\lambda(x)$ is zero, so by Tonelli $$\iint|L_gh-h|\,d\lambda(g)d\lambda(x)=\iint|L_gh-h|\,d\lambda(x)d\lambda(g)=0,$$ hence for $\lambda$-almost every choice of $x$ holds $$\int|h(g^{-1}x)-h(x)|\,d\lambda(g)=\int|h(g^{-1})-h(x)|\,d\lambda(g)=0.$$ Fix such an $x_0$, then $h(g^{-1})=h(x_0)$ for $\lambda$-almost every $g\implies h(x^{-1})$ is constant $\lambda$-a.e. $\implies h(x)$ is constant $\lambda$-a.e..
I don't understand the highlighted step, how does $h(x^{-1})$ being costant a.e. imply the unmodified $h(x)$ is constant a.e.? Both Knapp and Pedersen gloss over this detail.
Knapp: [...] and $h(g^{-1}x)=h(x)$ for almost every $x\in G$. We can regard $h(g^{-1}x)$ and $h(x)$ as functions of $(g,x)\in G\times G$; for each $g$, they are equal for almost every $x$. By Fubini’s Theorem they are equal for almost every pair $(g, x)$ (with respect to the product measure), and then for almost every $x$ they are equal for almost every $g$. Pick one such $x$, say $x_0$, then it follows that $h(x) = h(x_0)$ for almost every $x$.
Pedersen: Fubini’s theorem, applied to the product integral and the function $(x,z)\mapsto h(z^{-1}x)-h(x)$, now shows that the function $x\mapsto\int|h(z^{-1}x)-h(x)|dz=\int|h(z^{-1})-h(x)|dz$ equals zero almost everywhere. It follows that $h$ is constant almost everywhere, as desired.
The problem here is that you are trying to fix $x_0$ and use $h(x_0)$ as the constant. Instead, argue as follows. Having established that
$$\int|h(g^{-1})-h(x)|\,d\lambda(g)=0\text{,}$$ for a.e. $x$, go back to Tonelli again and conclude $$\int|h(g^{-1})-h(x)|\,d\lambda(x)\,d\lambda(g)=\int|h(g^{-1})-h(x)|\,d\lambda(g)\,d\lambda(x)=0\text{,}$$ so that for almost every every $g$ we have $$\int|h(g^{-1})-h(x)|\,d\lambda(x)=0\text{.}$$ Then fix such a $g=g_0$ and observe that $h(g_0^{-1})=h(x)$ for $\lambda$-a.e. $x$.