Motivation
Motivated by this question, I tried improve the inequality $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}\dfrac{k}{a_{1}+a_{2}+\cdots+a_{k}}\le2\sum_{k=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{a_{k}}$$ asymptotically. In other words, with support of some numerical evidence, I want to find the value of the following limit.
Question
Numerical experiment indicates that $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\ln n\left( 2-\sup_{a_k>0 (k=1\ldots n)}\frac{\sum_{k=1}^n{\frac{k}{a_1+a_2+\cdots +a_k}}}{\sum_{k=1}^n{1/a_k}} \right) $$ exists. The limit seems to be approximately $1.5$. How can we prove it and find its value?
Some Trivial Results
From this answer we can see that this limit is of form $\infty\cdot0$.
One can apply $\frac{\partial}{\partial a_k}$ to the formula in the $\sup$ and get a simultaneous equation, which is extremely complex and hence almost unsolvable with unknown $n$.
This is not an answer, but an experiment for moderately large $n$, making the limit of $\approx 1.5$ unlikely. $$S_n=\sup\left\{\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{k}{\sum_{j=1}^{k}a_j} : a_1,\ldots,a_n>0,\ \sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{a_k}=1\right\}$$ The method of Lagrange works here. Writing $$\mathcal{L}(a_1,\ldots,a_n,\lambda)=\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{k}{\sum_{j=1}^{k}a_j}-\lambda\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{a_k},\\\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial a_m}=\frac{\lambda}{a_m^2}-\sum_{k=m}^{n}\frac{k}{\left(\sum_{j=1}^{k}a_j\right)^2}\quad(1\leqslant m\leqslant n),$$ we obtain the following system for $(a_1,\ldots,a_n,\lambda)$: $$\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{a_k}=1;\quad\frac{k}{\left(\sum_{j=1}^{k}a_j\right)^2}=\frac{\lambda}{a_k^2}-\frac{\lambda}{a_{k+1}^2}\quad(1\leqslant k\leqslant n)$$ where we set $a_{n+1}:=\infty$ so that the very last term vanishes when $k=n$.
For fixed $\lambda$, the ratios $a_{k+1}/a_1$ can be computed from the second equation taken at $1\leqslant k\leqslant n-1$; then, the first equation determines $a_1$, and the last equation at $k=n$, finally, can be viewed as a single equation for $\lambda$. Observe also that if $(a_1,\ldots,a_n,\lambda)$ is the solution, then summation by parts yields simply $$S_n=\sum_{k=1}^{n}\left(\frac{\lambda}{a_k^2}-\frac{\lambda}{a_{k+1}^2}\right)\sum_{j=1}^{k}a_j=\lambda\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{a_k}=\lambda.$$
This handles $\color{red}{n\sim 10^6}$ easily. For powers of $2$, running
in PARI/GP (under different precision settings for sure), I get
Thus, the expression $L_n=(2-S_n)\ln n$ under the limit becomes $<1$. In fact $$L_{430605}=1.00000009015459070849\!+\\L_{430606}=0.99999998376961512393\!-$$