This might be trivial, but why a Sobolev space is generally defined with respect to an open set and not to a closed set or more generally? Is it related to the differentiability concept?
P.S.: The point I've said about the definition of a Sobolev space with respect to an open set can be supported by the following references:
Tartar, 2007. An Introduction to Sobolev Spaces and Interpolation Spaces.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sobolev_space#Extension_by_zero
And one seeming exception can be seen here: https://www.ljll.math.upmc.fr/frey/cours/UdC/ma691/ma691_ch2.pdf (or maybe it is not well-defined)
Thanks