Given a convex function $f$ defined on $[0,1]$ such that $f(0)=0$ and $f(1)=1$. Let $b$ be a positive number in $(0,1)$. Is $\frac{f(bx)}{f(x)}$ decreasing ? If not, can one provide a counter-example.
2026-04-24 12:52:42.1777035162
On Monotonicity
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