We know that if a sequence X has two convergent subsequences, whose limits are not equal, then X is divergent. For example: $(-1)^n$
However, is it true that for a given divergent sequence, we can necessarily find at least two convergent subsequences whose limits are unequal? Please help in proving or disproving this claim!
Thanks in advance!
No, take the sequence $a_n=n$. It does not have any convergent subsequences.
EDIT: Let $(a_{n_k})_{k\in\mathbb N}$ be an arbitrary subsequence of $(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$. Then $n_k \geq k$ for all $k\in\mathbb{N}$ since $(n_k)_{k\in\mathbb N}$ is a strictly monotonically increasing sequence. This implies $a_{n_k}\geq k$ for all $k\in\mathbb N$. Therefore the subsequence $(a_{n_k})_{k\in\mathbb N}$ does not converge.