I am trying to make sense of the spectral integral defined in Conways "A course in functional analysis" but I cant really settle on how to think about it. He does the following,
He just proved that $<E(\Delta)g,h>=E(\Delta)_{g,h}$ is a measure of bounded variation on the spectra or any $X$ with a sigma algebra if one prefers.
Now, the left hand side of the inequlities at the end seems to contain some kind of Riemann sum(which I cant define a integral for w.r.t a arbitrary measure) rather then simple functions as one would have in the case of a Lebgue integral.
So what integral concept is the sum< $\sum \phi(x_{k})E(\Delta_{k})g,h>$ associated to? Is he inventing his own concept here?
Edit!
It might be possible to consider $\phi(x_{k})$ a step function and do Lebague all the way, I am not sure tho.
The expression $\langle \sum_k \phi(\lambda_k) E(\Delta_k) g,h \rangle$ can be connected to the Lebesgue integral with the measure $E_{g,h}$. Note that you have
$$ \langle \sum_k \phi(\lambda_k) E(\Delta_k) g,h \rangle = \int \sum_k \phi(\lambda_k) \chi_{\Delta_k} dE_{g,h}. $$
The function $\sum_k \phi(\lambda_k) \chi_{\Delta_k}$ is a simple function, that approaches $\phi$ as you decrease the $\varepsilon > 0$ mentioned in the statement of the proposition. It can also be proven of course that the above sum converges to the Lebesgue integral $\int \phi dE_{g,h}$ when $\varepsilon \to 0$.