I'm trying to find some kind of property that can tell me something about the invertibility of the matrix $$ M = \begin{bmatrix} A & B \\ -B^{T} & A \end{bmatrix}$$
Where both $A$ and $B$ are square-invertible (but not symmetric) and the eigenvalues of $A$ are pure-imaginary (I don't know if this is a plus or not).
Is there any "easy" condition to say that $M$ is going to be invertible?
Thanks in advance!
Suppose $A, B \in\mathbb R^{n\times n}$ and let
$$A = \pmatrix{ -&-&\mathbf a_1&-&-\\ -&-&\mathbf a_2&-&-\\ &&\vdots\\ -&-&\mathbf a_n&-&-\\ },$$
where $\mathbf a_i\in \Bbb R^n$, and similarly for $B$ and $\mathbf b_i\in\Bbb R^n$.
We have that $M$ fails to be invertible if and only if there is nonzero $\mathbf w \in \mathbb R^{2n}$ with $M\mathbf w = 0$. Given $\mathbf w = (u_1,u_2,\dots,u_n, v_1,v_2,\dots,v_n)\in\Bbb R^{2n}$, let $\mathbf w^1 = P_1 \mathbf w = (u_1,u_2,\dots,u_n)$ and similarly let $\mathbf w^2 = P_2 \mathbf w = (v_1,v_2,\dots, v_n)$. Then $M$ fails to be invertible if and only if $P_1 M\mathbf w = P_2 M \mathbf w = 0$.
We have that
\begin{align} P_1 M\mathbf w &= \pmatrix{ \langle \mathbf a_1, \mathbf w^1\rangle + \langle \mathbf b_1, \mathbf w^2 \rangle\\ \langle \mathbf a_2, \mathbf w^1\rangle + \langle \mathbf b_2, \mathbf w^2 \rangle\\ \vdots\\ \langle \mathbf a_n, \mathbf w^1\rangle + \langle \mathbf b_n, \mathbf w^2 \rangle }\\ &= \pmatrix{ \langle \mathbf a_1, \mathbf w^1\rangle\\ \langle \mathbf a_2, \mathbf w^1\rangle\\ \vdots\\ \langle \mathbf a_n, \mathbf w^1\rangle } + \pmatrix{ \langle \mathbf b_1, \mathbf w^2 \rangle\\ \langle \mathbf b_2, \mathbf w^2 \rangle\\ \vdots\\ \langle \mathbf b_n, \mathbf w^2 \rangle } = A \mathbf w^1 + B\mathbf w^2 \end{align}
and similarly, $P_2 M\mathbf w = B^T\mathbf w^1 + A \mathbf w^2$. Hence, $M$ to fail to be invertible if and only if we have
$$\left\{\begin{array}{ccc} A \mathbf w^1 &=& - B\mathbf w^2\\ A \mathbf w^2 &=& - B^T\mathbf w^1 \end{array}\right.\tag{$*$}$$
Since $A$ is invertible, the second equation yields $\mathbf w^2 = - A^{-1}B^T\mathbf w^1$ and substituting back into the first we obtain
$$A \mathbf w^1 = BA^{-1}B^T\mathbf w^1 \implies \left(BA^{-1}B^T - A\right)\mathbf w^1 = 0.\tag{$**$}$$
Notice that because $A$ and $B$ are both invertible and $\mathbf w$ is nonzero, the system $(*)$ implies that both $\mathbf w^1$ and $\mathbf w^2$ are also nonzero. In other words, we may conclude from $(**)$ that $BA^{-1}B^T - A$ is not invertible $($and hence has $\det = 0)$.
On the other hand, it's easy to see that when $BA^{-1}B^T - A$ fails to be invertible, we can go the reverse direction and arrive at the system $(*)$, so this is both a necessary and sufficient condition.