I have been struggling with this question because many times I saw the statement "order of Sylow $p$-subgroup of symmetric group of order $p!$ is $p$" being used in exercises and texts without argumentation.
I know that it has to be of form $p^k$, but why is it that we automatically know the order of Sylow $p$-subgroup of symmetric group of order $p!$ is $p$, i.e. $k=1$?
Does this state only for $n=p$ or more general?
$p$ cannot be a prime factor of any number smaller than $p$, so $p!$ has exactly one factor of $p$.