I am reading a paper about Non-coherent FSK modulation, we have orthogonal functions in that, they have written
$$ \sin^2(\pi(a-b))/ \ (pi(a-b))^2 = 1 \ \ \ \ \ a=b $$ $$ \sin^2(\pi(a-b))/ \ (pi(a-b))^2 = 0 \ \ \ \ \ a!=b $$
Can anyone explain this how?
Isn't that a=b =0 and a!=b = some value ?
Given the linked paper and the equation number, you’re confused about this:
Edit:
The $i\neq k$ case follows from $\sin(\pi\times\text{integer}) = 0$.