Let $V$ be an inner product space over $\mathbb{F}(\mathbb{C}\ or\ \mathbb{R})$, and let $W$ be a subspace of $V$. Assuming $V$ is finite-dimensional, I have proved that $(W^{\perp})^{\perp} = W$ using some dimension considerations.
Is this also true for an infinite-dimensional space?
As Prahlad Vaidyanathan stated, this is, in general, not true. However, it is true that $W\subseteq (W^\perp)^\perp$.