Let us suppose we want to solve, with respect to x, the following equation
$\mathbf{a}^\intercal\mathbf{b}\;x = 0$
where $\mathbf{a}, \mathbf{b} \in \mathbb{R}^{n} \setminus \{ 0 \}$. It seems clear to me that the solution is $x \in \mathbb{R}$ if the two vectors are orthogonal, $x = 0$ otherwise. Let us now consider a vector $\mathbf{c} \in \mathbb{R}^{n}$ such that $\mathbf{c}\mathbf{a}^\intercal = \mathbb{I}_n$. If we multiply both sides of the equations by $\mathbf{c}$, we get
$\mathbf{b}\;x = 0$
that seems to have just the solution $x = 0$, even when the two vectors $\mathbf{a}$ and $\mathbf{b}$ are orthogonal. For sure, I have committed an error somewhere, doing something I was not allowed to do, but I really cannot understand what. Does someone spot the error? Thanks!
EDIT: I have edited the question to fix two errors:
- $\mathbf{c} \in \mathbb{R}^{n}$ instead of $\mathbf{c} \in \mathbb{R}$
- $\mathbf{c}\mathbf{a}^\intercal = \mathbb{I}$ instead of $\mathbf{c}\mathbf{a}^\intercal = 1$
Suppose that there exists $c\in\mathbb{R}^n$ such that $ca^T=\mathbb{I}$. Since $0=a^Tb$ we have $$ (0, 0,\ldots, 0)^T=ca^Tb=\mathbb{I\;} b=b, $$ and so $a^Tbx=0$ implies $0\times x=0$ and so $x\in \mathbb{R}$.