For which matrices $A \in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{n \times n}$ do we have $x^T A x=0$ for all $x \in (\mathbb{F}_p)^n$?
Obviously, this is the case if $A=B-B^T$ for some $B$ (which is equivalent to saying that $A$ is anti-symmetric if $p\neq 2$). Is this if an iff?
I think for $\mathbb{R}$ instead of $\mathbb{F}_p$, this is true since matrices of the form $xx^T$ span the whole space of symmetric matrices. Does that still hold for $\mathbb{F}_p$?
$A$ is anti-symmetric if $A^t=-A$. However
$a_{ii}=e_i^tAe_i=0$
(Here $\{e_i\}$ is the standard basis )
Then
$$(e_i-e_j)^tA(e_i-e_j)=-e_i^tAe_j-e_j^tAe_i=-a_{ij}-a_{ji}=0$$
And so $a_{ij}=-a_{ji}$
So your statement holds for any field, except for $\mathbb{F}_2$, as you can see in the comments below.