Let $G$ be a finite group with subgroups $H$ and $P$ and if $H$ is normal in $G$ and $P$ is normal in $H$ and $P$ is a Sylow subgroup of $G$ then $P$ is normal in $G$.
Is the statement true, I heard it from a friend of mine....but helpless to do the proof.
If $P$ is a $p$-Sylow subgroup of $G$, then it is also a $p$-Sylow subgroup of $H$ since it is still a $p$-group and certainly maximal.
For any $g\in G$, you have $gPg^{-1}\subseteq gHg^{-1}=H$ (using normality of $H$), so $gPg^{-1}$ is again a $p$-Sylow-Subgroup of $H$. By the second Sylow Theorem, all $p$-Sylow subgroups (of $H$) are conjugate, so there must be an $h\in H$ with $gPg^{-1}=hPh^{-1}=P$, where we use that $P$ is normal in $H$.