I want to show the assertion above. I already know: $p$ splits completely in $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3,\sqrt[3]{2}) \Leftrightarrow p\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3)}=R \overline{R}$ in the ring of integers $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3)}=\mathbb{Z}[\zeta_3]$ and $R$ is a principal ideal, i.e. $R=(\pi)$ where $\pi\in \mathbb{Z}[\zeta_3]$, and $6\mid (\pi-1)$. (This equivalence uses class fields theory) It is claimed that the second one is equivalent to: $p\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3)}=(\pi)(\overline{\pi})$ and $\pi=x+3y\sqrt{-3}$ . Why is it true?
2026-04-10 08:46:22.1775810782
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$p$ splits completely in $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3,\sqrt[3]{2}) \Leftrightarrow p=x^2+27y^2$
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Perhaps the proof in K. Conrad's notes is also helpful, which goes as follows. We know that $p$ splits completely in $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3,\sqrt[3]{2})$ if and only if $x^3-2$ splits completely modulo $p$, i.e., has three distinct roots in $\mathbb{F}_p$. Now this is the case if and only if $p\equiv 1\bmod 3$ and and $2^{\frac{p−1}{3}} \equiv 1 \bmod p$, which is that $p$ is represented by $X^2 + 27Y^2$, see Theorem $9.9$ here, using cubic reciprocity. In fact, $p=\pi\overline{\pi}$, and $2$ and $\pi= x+3\sqrt{-3}y$ are primary primes etc.
Although the cubic reciprocity law (you alluded to CFT in your OP) will not appear in the proof of your equivalence, let us stress that cubic reciprocity plays a central role in the statement of Euler's conjecture that "$p=x^2+27y^2$ iff $p\equiv 1$ mod $3$ and $2$ is a cubic residue mod $p$", as well as in its later proof by Gauss. Sticking to your notations (but dropping the index $3$ for a primitive $3$-rd root of unity), recall that a prime $\pi \in \mathbf Z[\zeta]$ is called primary if $\pi \equiv \pm 1$ mod $3$ . Now :
1) Suppose that $p=\pi.\bar\pi$, with $\pi=x+y\sqrt {-3}$. Then $p\equiv 1$ mod $3$ because $p$ splits in $\mathbf Z[\zeta]$, $\pi$ is a primary prime and $p=x^2+27y^2$. Replacing $\pi$ by $-\pi$ if necessary, we may assume that $\pi \equiv 1$ mod $3$. Since $\sqrt {-3}=1+2 \zeta , \pi=x+y+6y \zeta$, and we have $\pi\equiv x+3y\equiv x+y \equiv 1$ mod $2$ because $x, y$ have opposite parity. It follows that $\pi\equiv 1$ mod $6$.
2) Conversely, suppose that $\pi\equiv 1$ mod $6$. The congruence $\pi\equiv 1$ mod $3$ implies that the prime $p$ under $\pi$ splits as $p=\pi.\bar\pi$. Let us exploit the congruence $\pi\equiv 1$ mod $2$. Since $\pi$ is primary, we can write $\pi=a+b\zeta$, with $a, b \in \mathbf Z$, so the congruence $\pi\equiv 1$ mod $2$ becomes $a+3b\zeta\equiv 1$ mod $2$, which implies straightforwardly that $a$ is odd and $b$ is even. Then, writing $4p=4\pi\bar\pi=4(a^2-3ab+9b^2)=(2a-3b)^2+27b^2$, the parity of $b$ shows that $p$ is of the form $x^2+27y^2$ ./.