I have been doing an exercise problem, and there is something unclear about it. Namely, how was the triangle in the following example transformed to a circle $C'$, which is parametrised by $(x(t), y(t)) = (cost,sin t), 0 ≤ t ≤ 2π$?
Also, has the Green theorem actually been used here, since there is no double integral?

Green's theorem says that if the partial derivatives of $P,Q$ are defined everywhere in the region:
$\oint P\ dx + Q\ dy = \iint (\frac {\partial Q}{\partial x} - \frac {\partial P}{\partial y}) dV$
Here you have the case that $\frac {\partial Q}{\partial x},\frac {\partial P}{\partial y}$ are not defined at the origin. But they are defined everywhere else.
Suppose divide the region into pieces.
$\oint_A P\ dx + Q\ dy + \oint_B P\ dx + Q\ dy + \oint_C P\ dx + Q\ dy$
Since we travel the contours both directions on the red segments, those are going to cancel each other out. The sum of the three contours integrals is the same as the contour integral around the triangle.
The partials are defined everywhere in regions A and B. We can use Green's theorem to evaluate those.
Since $(\frac {\partial Q}{\partial x} - \frac {\partial P}{\partial y}) = 0$ in those regions, $\oint_A P\ dx + Q\ dy + \oint_B P\ dx + Q\ dy = \iint 0 \ dA + \iint 0 \ dB = 0$
Which is a long way of getting to the point that all contours that enclose the origin (in this example) will have the same contour integral.