I "know" that a parametrization of an Hyperbola ($x^2-y^2=1$) is given by: $$\gamma(t)=(\sec(t),\tan(t)),t\in\mathbb{R}$$ I know that $x=\sec(t)$ and $y=\tan(t)$ is a solution of the equation.
How can I show that for all $(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2$ such that $x^2-y^2=1$ there exists $t\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $x=\sec(t)$ and $y=\tan(t)$?
I will put an answer I thought about.
Let $(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $x^2-y^2=1$.
As $u(v)=\tan v$ is surjective there exists $t\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $y=\tan t$. And as $x^2-y^2=1$ we get $$x^2=y^2+1=1+\tan^2 t=\sec^2 t$$ so $x=\pm\sec t$. If $x=\sec t$ we are done.
If not, $x=-\sec t$, and let $t'=\pi+t$. Then $\sec(t')=\sec(t+\pi)=-\sec(t)=x$ and $\tan t'=\tan (t+\pi)=\tan t=y$ (As the period of $\tan u$ is $\pi$).
So in any case, there exists a real number $q$ such that $x=\sec q$ and $y=\tan q$.
Thanks for the help, it was truly useful. And it is more useful to see the different ways we can use to get the answer.