If $F(v^2-x^2,v^2-y^2,v^2-z^2)=0$ and $v$ is a function of $x,y,z$. How to proof that $$\frac{1}{x}\frac{\partial{v}}{\partial{x}}+\frac{1}{y}\frac{\partial{v}}{\partial{y}}+\frac{1}{z}\frac{\partial{v}}{\partial{z}}=\frac{1}{v}$$
2026-03-29 10:12:07.1774779127
Partial Derivative-Chain Rule
27 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in PARTIAL-DERIVATIVE
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