I can't follow a step in one of my textbooks... It says that given a function $f(x-vt)$, we know that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = -\frac{1}{v} \frac{\partial f}{\partial t}$. I think this comes from the chain rule but I can't figure out how to make that connection. Can someone explain this to me?
2026-04-24 09:19:31.1777022371
Partial Derivative of Function
34 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in MULTIVARIABLE-CALCULUS
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