I stumbled upon the demonstration of the energy problem and saw something I don't understand.
I thought mathematicians would be happier to solve his kind of problem
$$ \int_a^b \vec F \cdot d \vec s = \int_a^b m\vec a \cdot d\vec s = \int_a^b m {d \vec v \over dt} \cdot d\vec s = \int_a^b m d \vec v \cdot {d\vec s \over dt} = \cdots$$
Why can I do the last passage? I think it's a kind of scalar product property mixed to some differentials propery, but I can't figure out better, and on my book it's all taken for granted. I mean, it's not like I can take that $ dt$ and pass it below everything I want, right?
Sorry if the question is too simple but I want to know everything I go through, as I go through. Tell me to delete it and I will if it's a problem. Bye!
Yes you can. But if you think that is not "formal" enough, just look at it the following way:
If you combine these two facts, you'll see that the manipulations that happened are just a shortcut for this.