Solving the PDE $$x^2 z_x + y^2 z_y = z(x+y)$$
I came across an error in my calculations which I cannot find :
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{x^2}=\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{y^2}=\frac{\mathrm{d}z}{z(x+y)}$$
The first integral curve is given as :
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{x^2}=\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{y^2}\implies z_1 = \frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{y}$$
Now, for the second integral curve, I use the following differential subtraction trick to get rid of the $(x+y)$ term :
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}x-\mathrm{d}y}{x^2-y^2}=\frac{\mathrm{d}z}{z(x+y)}$$ $$\Rightarrow$$ $$\frac{\mathrm{d}(x-y)}{x-y} = \frac{\mathrm{d}z}{z}$$ $$\implies$$ $$z_2 = \frac{z}{x-y}$$
And thus the general solution is : $$z_2=F(z_1)\Rightarrow z(x,y)=(x-y)F\bigg(\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}\bigg)$$ where $F$ is a $C^1$ function of $x$ and $y$.
Wolfram Alpha though, states that the solution is $z(x,y)=xyF(1/x-1/y$), which means that I have found the integral curve $z_2$ wrong. I cannot find any fault in my calculations though. The correct integral curve should be : $$z_2 = \frac{z}{xy}$$ How would one come to this calculation though ?
I would really appreciate your help
From
$$ \frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}=C_1 \Rightarrow y-x=C_1 x y $$
From
$$ \frac{dy-dx}{y-x}=\frac{dz}{z}\Rightarrow y-x = C_2 z $$
hence
$$ C_2 z = C_1 x y \Rightarrow C_4 = \frac{z}{x y} $$