In an election, 2.8 million votes were cast and each vote was either for candidate I or candidate II. candidate I received 28,000 more votes than candidate II. What percent of the 2,8 million votes were cast for candidate I?
I solved that candidate I received 1% more vote than candidate two.
Then I incorrectly concluded that because candidate I recived 1 % more vote than candidate 2, candidate one would have 50.1% of the total votes.
Why does candidate I actually have 50.5% of the total votes and not 51% of the total votes?
I don't want an algebraic answer.
The reason why it is not $51\%$ is that if one candidate $51\%,$ only $49\%$ can be cast for the other candidate. And $51 - 49 = 2,$ which is larger than the percentage difference between the candidate.
Imagine that exactly $50\%$ of all voters intended to vote for each candidate, but at the last moment some of the candidate-II voters changed their minds and voted for candidate I instead. Each voter who changed his or her mind added one vote to candidate I and took away one vote from candidate II, so that one voter is responsible for creating a two-vote difference between the candidates. Now repeat that $14000$ times ($\frac 12 \%$ of all the votes), and the difference will be $28000$ votes.