Is the usage of either $\pi i$ or $i \pi$ technically correct compared to the other? I have seen both used frequently by many sources.
Edit: I understand the two are equal. I am asking whether there is any convention which makes it preferable to write either $\pi i$ or $i \pi$, in the same vein as why we write $2x$ and not $x2$.
They are equal since multiplication over the complex number field is commutative.
$$\pi i = i \pi$$
Edit:
I am not aware of any convention that suggests one is preferable to the others. Here is another related post.