Does it mean when
$\displaystyle\prod_{x=b}^{\infty}f(x) = 0$,
there must be at least 1 number ( $a$ ) between $b$ and $\infty$ inclusive such that $f(a) = 0$?
Does it mean when
$\displaystyle\prod_{x=b}^{\infty}f(x) = 0$,
there must be at least 1 number ( $a$ ) between $b$ and $\infty$ inclusive such that $f(a) = 0$?
No, it just means that
$$\lim_{B\to\infty} \prod_{x=b}^B f(x) = 0$$
which is true, for example, for the function $f$ which is constantly equal to $\frac{1}{2}$ for all $x$.