I am reading "An Introduction to Analysis vol. 2" (in Japanese) by Kazuo Matsuzaka.
There is the following example in this book:
Let $f_n(x) := \frac{\sin n^2 x}{n}$ for $n = 1,2,\dots$.
Then $f(x):=\lim_{n\to\infty} f_n(x)=0$, so $f'(x) = 0$.
On the other hand, $f_n^{'}(x) = n \cos n^2 x$ and $f_n^{'}(x)$ doesn't converge as $n\to\infty$.
So, $f_n\to f$ and, $f_n$ and $f$ are differentiable, but $f_n^{'}\to f^{'}$ doesn't hold.
The author wrote $n\cos n^2 x$ doesn't converge as $n\to\infty$ for any $x\in\mathbb{R}$.
But I cannot prove that $n\cos n^2x$ doesn't converge as $n\to\infty$ even for $x=1$.
Please prove that $n\cos n^2 x$ doesn't converge as $n\to\infty$ for any $x\in\mathbb{R}$.
Hint
For any large positive integer $N$, you should be able to find integers $r,s$ such that $r > N$ and $s > N$ and such that $xr^2$ is reasonably close to $\pi \pmod{2\pi}$, while $xs^2$ is reasonably close to $0 \pmod{2\pi}.$