Consider the real valued functions of $x$, $F:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and $F_n:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and suppose I have shown that $$ |F_n(x)-F(x)|\leq A \text{ } \text{ }\forall x $$ Dos this mean that $\sup_{x} |F_n(x)-F(x)| \leq A$?
2026-04-13 12:54:20.1776084860
Pointwise bounded sequence is "uniformly bounded"?
290 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
3
Yes, of course. If $l := \sup_{x}|F_{n}(x) - F(x)| > A$, then by definition (if you are using this definition; otherwise we can prove this) there is some $x$ such that $$ l \geq |F_{n}(x) - F(x)| > l - \frac{l-A}{2} > A, $$ a contradiction.