I'm asking for a proof-verification of the following:
$ f_n(x) := \left\{\begin{array}{ll} 2n^2x, & x\in [0,\frac{1}{2n}) \\ -2n^2x+2n, & x\in [\frac{1}{2n},\frac{1}{n})\\ 0,& x \in [\frac{1}{n},1]\end{array}\right. . $
Claim: $f_n$ converges pointwise to $f$ where $f(x):= 0$.
Proof:
Let $\epsilon_1 := 2(n+1)^2x \,\, and \,\, x \in [0,1]$
$\Rightarrow \mid f_n(x) - f(x) \mid = \mid f_n(x) - 0\mid = \mid f_n(x) \mid$
Case one: $x \in [0,\frac{1}{2n})$
$\mid 2n^2x \mid = 2n^2x < \epsilon_1 \forall n$
Case two: $x \in [\frac{1}{2n}, \frac{1}{n})$ Let $\epsilon_2 > 0,$ $\epsilon_2 := 2(n+1)^2x+2(n+1)$
$\mid -2n^2x+2n\mid \leq \mid -2n^2x \mid + \mid 2n \mid = 2n^2x +2n < \epsilon_2 \forall n$
Case three: $ x \in [\frac{1}{n},1]$ Let $ \epsilon_3 > 0, \epsilon_3 := 1$
$\mid 0 \mid = 0 < \epsilon_3 \forall n$
$\Rightarrow f_n$ converges to $f$ when $n \rightarrow \infty $ where $f(x) := 0$
Since your $\varepsilon$'s depend upon $n$ and $x$, your proof is wrong. There can be no restriction on the value of $\varepsilon$, apart from the fact that we must have $\varepsilon>0$.
There are two cases to be considered:
EDIT:
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