I want to determine the poles, and their orders, of $f(z)$.1)
$$ f(z) = \frac{1+e^{i\pi z}}{(z-1)^2(z+1)^2} $$
The solution says that $f(z)$ has two simple poles at $z = +1$ and $z= -1$, but to me they both seem to be double poles? How can they be simple?
Maybe it has something to do with $f(z)$ having zeroes at $z=\pm 1$?
The function $g(z)=\frac z{z^2}$ has a simple pole at the origin. Your function does the same thing, only the functional expression hides it a little better.
Yes, it has everything to do with the numerator also having roots (of order 1) at those points. In general, if you have two meromorphic functions $f$ and $g$ and $f$ has a root of order $m$ at $a$ and $g$ has a root of order $n$, then $fg$ has a root of order $m+n$ (and $\frac fg$ has a root of order $m-n$). This includes poles (roots of negative order), and finite non-zero values (roots of order zero). You might have a removable singularity that needs removing before applying this.