Is there a difference between the names of the poles at $x=0$ between:
1) $f(x)=\dfrac1x$
2) $f(x)=\dfrac1{|x|}$
in that (1) tends to $+\infty$ as $x\to0^+$, and to $-\infty$ as $x\to0^-$, whereas (2) tends to $+\infty$ from either side.
Is there a difference between the names of the poles at $x=0$ between:
1) $f(x)=\dfrac1x$
2) $f(x)=\dfrac1{|x|}$
in that (1) tends to $+\infty$ as $x\to0^+$, and to $-\infty$ as $x\to0^-$, whereas (2) tends to $+\infty$ from either side.
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As far as I am aware, a pole can only be possessed by a function on an open subset of $\mathbb C$ (or more generally a Riemann surface) that is analytic in a deleted neighbourhood of the pole. $1/|x|$ is not analytic in a deleted neighbourhood of $0$ in $\mathbb C$, so it does not have a pole there.