Let $\mathbb K$ be a field, with $\mathrm{Char}(\mathbb K) = 0$, and $P\in \mathbb{K}[X]$ irreducible. Let $Q\ \in \mathbb{K}[X]$ such that $\gcd(P,Q) =1$. I'd like to show that $P$ does not divide $P'Q$ (or find counter examples if this is not correct).
It looks simple, so I guess I'm missing something obvious.
Thank you
If by the pretty weird notation $\;P\wedge Q=1\;$ you meant $\;P,Q\;$ are coprime, then you can argue as follows:
$$g.c.d.(P,Q)=1\implies \exists f(x),g(x)\in\Bbb K[x]\;\;s.t.\;\;f(x)P(x)+g(x)Q(x)=1$$
Now, suppose
$$P\mid P'Q\implies P'Q=m(x)P(x)\;,\;\;m(x)\in\Bbb K[x]\,,\;\;\text{but then}$$
$$P'=P'\cdot 1=fPP'+gP'Q=fPP'+gmP$$
and since $\;P\mid fPP'+gmP\;$ , then also $\;P\mid P'\;$ , which is absurd as we're in characteristic zero...