Let $p$ be a prime number and denote by $\mathbb F_p$ the field of integers modulo $p$. Like before, we can consider polynomials with coefficients in $\mathbb F_p$. Then, the polynomial $X^p − X$ is non-zero and its polynomial function $x^p − x$ is zero, by little Fermat’s theorem.
Can someone please explain what the above statement means? Why is the polynomial $X^p - X$ non zero, but the polynomial function $x^p -x$ is zero? what is it referring to? If there are any references online, I'd appreciate it. I searched online about the above statement but couldn't find anything relevant. Thanks!
A polynomial exist by itself without the need of evaluate it at some point, if you want you can interpret it as a formal expression. When consider the possibility of evaluate , the polynomial become a funcion. In this case the zero map and the polynomial X^p-X define the same map, in the field with p elements.