prime number counting assuming RH: exact or not?

Question

In https://www.quora.com/What-is-the-relationship-between-the-Riemann-Hypothesis-and-prime-numbers and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prime-counting_function#Exact_form talk of exact formulas for the prime number counting function (assuming the Riemann Hypothesis and probably above some value) , whereas https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riemann_hypothesis#Distribution_of_prime_numbers talks of a best bound for it. So, which is it: exact or not? That is, if we assume the RH is true and we are given a large x, can we calculate exactly pi(x) or can we still only approximate it? (I understand that without the RH, we can only approximate it.)