So the question I have is this , if a prime p is representable by two primitive positive definitive binary quadratic forms f(x,y) and g(x,y) of the same discriminant, are they necessarily equivalent? If so, how do you prove such a thing. I'm studying class groups right now, and this is a question I had. Maybe this has something to do with genera, but I'm neither sure of the answer nor the proof to this.
2026-03-24 20:30:30.1774384230
Primes representable by equivalent binary forms
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