Fulton, "Algebraic Curves," Exercise 1.39(a):
Let $R$ be a UFD, and $P = (t)$ a principal, proper, prime ideal. Show there is no prime ideal $Q$ with $0 \subset Q \subset P$.
After being stumped for some time, I came up with the following proof while attending a concert (my ears are still ringing an hour later):
Suppose there is such an ideal. Take some $0 \neq q \in Q$. Since $Q \subset P$, $q = rt$ for some $r \in R$. Since $Q$ is prime, and $t \not \in Q$ by assumption, we must have $r \in Q$. Applying the preceding to $r$ instead of $q$, we have $r = r't$ for some $r' \in Q$. So $q = rt = (r't)t = r't^2$. Proceeding along these lines, $q$ is divisible by $t^n$ for all $n \geq 0$. Notice that $t$ is irreducible, since $P = (t)$ is prime. Now, what possible factorization into irreducibles could $q$ have?
So far as I can tell, this seems to work, but it also seems exceedingly silly. What's the "right" way to prove this?
Your idea is not stupid as noted in a comment above. Recall the definition of a UFD:
A domain $R$ is a UFD if
You could provide an alternative ("less stupid" if you want to call it) proof like this. Suppose that $Q \subsetneqq (t)$. Now since $Q$ is a prime ideal and $R$ is a UFD by a theorem of Kaplansky there is a prime element $q \in Q$. Since $Q \subsetneqq (t)$ we can write $q = rt$ for some $r \in R$. Now because $Q$ is a prime ideal and $t \notin Q$ we are forced to conclude that $r \in Q$. However $q$ being a prime element is irreducible and this forces $r$ to be a unit. It follows that $Q$ contains a unit and hence $1 \in Q$, contradicting $Q$ being prime.