For each $n = 1, 2, 3, \ldots$, let $f_n \colon [0,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ be defined by $$f_n(x) \colon= x^n \ \ \ \mbox{ for all } \ x \in [0,1].$$
Then $$ \lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) = \begin{cases} 0 \ & \mbox{ for } \ 0 \leq x < 1; \\ 1 \ & \mbox{ for } \ x=1. \end{cases} $$
So the point-wise limit of $f_n$ is a discontinuous function.
How to show directly that this sequence of functions does not converge uniformly?
Can we say that the only candidate for the uniform limit of $f_n$ is the function $f \colon [0,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $$ f(x) \colon= \begin{cases} 0 \ & \mbox{ for } \ 0 \leq x < 1; \\ 1 \ & \mbox{ for } \ x=1? \end{cases} $$
And if so, then can we say that since $f_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions and since $f$ is discontinuous (at $x=1$), therefore the convergence is not uniform?
Is it true that a uniform limit of a sequence of functions is always a point-wise limit?
And what about the converse?
If the convergence were uniform, we would have $f_n(x)<1/3$ on $[0,1)$ for all sufficiently large $n.$ But note $f_n(1-1/n) = (1-1/n)^n \to 1/e > 1/3,$ contradiction