I have just started a course on quantum theory and have been stuck on this problem.
Suppose $\Psi(x,t)$ satisfies the one-dimensional time-dependent Schrödinger equation with real potential $V(x)$. That is,
$i\hbar \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2} + V\Psi$
With $\rho(x,t) = |\Psi(x,t)|^2$ and $j(x,t) = \frac{i\hbar}{2m}(\Psi\frac{\partial \bar{\Psi}}{\partial x} - \bar{\Psi}\frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} )$ where $\bar{\Psi}$ denotes the complex conjugate of $\Psi$, we have the continuity equation, that $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t} + \frac{\partial j}{\partial x} = 0$
I need to show that j vanishes identically if and only if there exists a nowhere zero function $\lambda(t)$ such that $\lambda(t)\Psi(x,t)$ takes only real values. The if direction is simple, but I do not know how to make progress on the only if direction.
The probability current $j$ vanishes if and only if the phase $\theta$ of $\Psi$ is constant w.r.t. $x,$ i.e. only depends on $t.$ Take $\lambda=e^{-i\theta}.$