Let $A$ be a $C^*$-algebra, $p\in A$ a projection.
Assume that $a$ is a element in $ \text{Ball}(A_+)$ such that $a\leq p$.
Q: May I say $ap=pa$? Why?
Let $A$ be a $C^*$-algebra, $p\in A$ a projection.
Assume that $a$ is a element in $ \text{Ball}(A_+)$ such that $a\leq p$.
Q: May I say $ap=pa$? Why?
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You have $$ 0\leq(1-p)a(1-p)\leq(1-p)p(1-p)=0. $$ Thus $$0=(1-p)a(1-p)=(a^{1/2}(1-p))^*(a^{1/2}(1-p)),$$ and $a^{1/2}(1-p)=0$, from where $a(1-p)=0$; so $a=ap$. Taking adjoints, $a=pa$. If follows that $a=pap$.