I just started reading about Orthogonal Projections when I encountered this:

I'm fine with the definition. It seems natural. But I don't get the Note after it. Why is it that if we're given Vector spave $V$ and it's subspace $U$, then there are many projections $T$ ? Isn't the complementary subspace $W$ of $U$ uniquely determined by $V$ and $U$? If yes, hoow then can there be more than one projection $T$ ?


No, for a subspace $U$, there can be more than one complementary subspace (and because of this, more than one projection).
Think in $\mathbb R^2$. Let $U$ be the subspace $\{y=0\}=<(1,0)>$. Now, $W_1=\{x=0\}=<(0,1)>$ and $W_2=\{x-y=0\}=<(1,1)>$ are both complementary subspaces of $U$. In fact, every vector linearly independent with $(1,0)$ generates a complementary subspace of $U$.
Now, if you fix a suplementary $W$ for $U$, every vector of $V$ can be written $v=u+w$, with $u\in U$ and $w\in W$. In this case, the projection would be $T(v)=u$. Let's do it with the previous examples:
If we let $U=<(1,0)>$ and $W=<(0,1)>$, then every vector $(x,y)\in \mathbb R^2$ is written $$(x,y)=(x,0)+(0,y), \ (x,0)\in U, \ (0,y)\in V$$ so the projection is $T((x,y))=(x,0)$.
If we pick $W=(1,1)$, then $$(x,y)=(x-y,0)+(y,y)$$ so $T(x,y)=(x-y,0)$ in this case.