Most of the Time in order to proof a function is surjective
- we first choose an Arbitrary point belong to Co-domain (Target Point)
- Let (Target Point) = definition of function
- Solve for x
- proof that f(x) = y
in example Like :
f : Z×Z→Z×Z defined by the formula f(m,n)= (m+n,m+2n)
My Proof was as the Following :
Let (x,y) ∈ Z×Z #(this is the target point)
x = m+n solve for n thus n= x-m
y = m+2n solve for m thus m=y-2n
f(m,n) = (x,y)
(m+n,m+2n) = (x,y)
(y-2n + n , y-2n+2n)
(y-n , y) = (x,y)
I'm stuck here I don't Know I should do to get y-n = x
The function is just a multiplication by a matrix $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1\\1& 2 \end{pmatrix}$, which has the inverse $\begin{pmatrix} 2& -1\\-1& 1 \end{pmatrix}$ (over the reals, but it works over $\mathbb{Z}$ too, as we have integer coefficients and the determinant $1$).
So to solve $f(x,y) = (m,n)$ we take $x=2m -n, y=-m+n$, and you can just compute the images to see that it checks out that $f(x,y) = (m,n)$.