I am struggling with this proof:
$\forall x(A \to B) \vDash A \to \forall x B$, if $x \not \in {free}(A)$
Below is my thoughts:
Proof: Let $\mathfrak{I} =(D,\varphi)$ be an interpretation, and let $\sigma$ be a variable assignment over $\mathfrak{I}$.
Assume $\mathfrak{I}, \sigma \vDash \forall x(A \to B), $ so for all d $\in$ D, $\mathfrak{I} , \sigma^{\frac{d}{x}} \vDash A \to B $,
so either $\sigma \nvDash A $ or $\sigma \vDash B$,
if $\sigma \nvDash A $, then $\sigma \vDash A \to \forall xB$, then I have no idea how to do...
I want to know how to prove this claim. Would anyone help me out please?
By contradiction: assume that the premise holds and the conclusion does not, i.e. that:
This means that $I, \sigma \vDash A$ and $I,\sigma \nvDash \forall x B$.
This implies that, for some $d \in D$, we have that $I, \sigma (d|x) \nvDash B$.
But due to the fact that $x \notin \text {FV}(A)$, we have that form $I, \sigma \vDash A$, also: $I,\sigma(d|x) \vDash A$.
In fact, if $x$ does not occur free in $A$, and $\sigma$ satisfies $A$, also the new sequence $\sigma(d|x)$ that assigns $d$ to $x$ will satisfy it.
And thus:
contradicting the assumption above.