Let $a_1, a_2,\ldots , a_n$ be positive integers.
Prove that if $(a_1+a_2+\ldots+a_n)-n+1$ pigeons are to be put in $n$ pigeonholes, then for some $i$, the statement "The $i^{th}$ pigeonhole must contain at least $a_i$ pigeons" must be true.
My approach:
Let us assume that this hypothesis is incorrect.
Let $p(i)$ denote the number of pigeons in $i^{th}$ pigeonhole.
Thus no $i\in \mathbb N$ exists such that $i^{th}$ pigeonhole contains at least $a_i$ pigeons.
$$\therefore p(i)<a_i\space \forall\ i\in \mathbb N$$ $$\sum_{i=1}^{n} p(i)<\sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i$$ $$(a_1+a_2+\ldots+a_n)-n+1<(a_1+a_2+\ldots+a_n)$$ This gives us $1<n$ which certainly is true.
Where did I go wrong in my proof? Please help.
THANKS
Note: This is question number $3.3.12$ from the book 'The Art and Craft of Problem Solving' by Paul Zeitz.
Since $p(i)$ is an integer, $p(i)<a_i$ is equivalent to $p(i)\leq a_i-1$. Then we have the following,
$$\sum_{i=1}^{n}p(i)\leq\sum_{i=1}^{n}(a_i-1)\\\implies(a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n)-n+1\leq(a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n)-n$$ which is a contradiction!