I was just wondering it is possible to prove this statement via mathematical induction? (I know you can do it via calculus but I want to specifically do it via induction). I have given it a go but am getting stuck at the proof for $n+1$ statement.
Thanks.
Hint: use the facts that $\ln(n+1) = \ln n + \ln\!\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)$, that $\ln$ is increasing and that $\ln 2 < 1$.