I wrote a basic proof by induction but did not use the inductive hypothesis. Not sure if this proof is correct.
- Base case: $3^2 \ge 2\times3 + 1 $
- By inductive hypothesis, $k^2 \ge 2k+1 \space\forall k\ge 3$
- Inductive step: $(k+1)^2 \ge 2(k+1)+1 \rightarrow k^2+2k+1 \ge 2k+3 \rightarrow k^2\ge2$ is clearly true for all $k \ge 3$
I think not using the inductive hypothesis makes me uncomfortable about this proof's correctness. I don't know how to check if there's circular logic here.
On some manipulation, the Inequality becomes $$ n^2 -2n + 1 \geqslant 2 \quad [\text{for } n \geqslant 3] $$ Which is obviously $(n -1)^2 \geqslant 2$ for $n \geqslant 3. $ Which is always true for $n \geqslant 3$.