Consider the following Theorem (ii)
In the part that says by passing from $f_k$ to $f_{k+1}$ each subinterval is divided in half. It follows that $f_k\le f_{k+1}$.
I can see that indeed each subinterval is divided in half but I cannot see how that implies that $f_{k}$ is monotone increasing.
Could you explain please?
In the part that states wherever $f$ is finite, we have $$0\le f-f_k\le 2^{-k}$$
Why ?
If $f$ is finite then $f_k=\frac{j-1}{2^k}$
and where does $0\le f-f_k\le 2^{-k}$ come from?
Note this is not a duplicate with If $f$ is measurable function then there exist a sequence of $φ_n$ measurable functions such that $φ_n\to f$ pointwise because the presented proofs are different.

Put differently, in step $k$, we partition $[0,\infty)$ as $$\tag1 [0,\infty)=[0,2^{-k})\cup [2^{-k},2\cdot 2^{-k})\cup \ldots \cup [(j-1)2^{-k},j2^{-k})\cup \ldots \cup [k-2^{-k},k)\cup [k,\infty)$$ and let $f_k(x)$ be the lower end point of the unique interval on the right of $(1)$ containing the value $f(x)$. Now note that the partition for $k+1$ is a refinement of the partition for $k$. Hence, if $f(x)\in[a,b)\subseteq [c,d)$, where $[a,b)$ is an interval of step $k+1$ and $[c,d)$ an interval of step $k$, we have $f_{k+1}(x)=a\ge c=f_k(x)$.
Regarding the second part, the claim $f(x)-f_k(x)<2^{-k}$ does not hold as generally as written, but rather only eventually, namely, when $k\ge f(x)$. For then $f(x)$ is in one of the $k2^k$ first intervals in $(1)$, and as these are of length $2^{-k}$, the claim $0\le f(x)f_k(x)<2^{-k}$ follows. Of course, the merely eventual nature of the inequality does not disturb the ultimately desired claim about convergence.